Skip to main content

All Questions

0 votes
0 answers
9 views

Say you have a quantum field theory involving two interacting fields $f_1$, $f_2$, with hamiltonian \begin{equation} H = H_{free} + H_{int}, \end{equation} where $H_{free}$ describes the evolution of ...
K. Pull's user avatar
  • 401
5 votes
1 answer
138 views

A quantum field theory can be classified as superrenormalizable, renormalizable, or nonrenormalizable and in the renormalization group an operator can be classified as relevant, marginal, or ...
CBBAM's user avatar
  • 4,908
-5 votes
0 answers
67 views

Is it possible for entanglement to be a dynamic field, suggesting that particles become entangled through their interaction with this field, as opposed to viewing entanglement as a direct, passive ...
QuantumOptics's user avatar
0 votes
0 answers
39 views

I am trying to do the canonical quantization of an abelian vector field $A_\mu(x)$ in the $R_\xi$ gauge. So the gauge-fixing Lagrangian is given by $$ \mathscr{L}_{gf} = -\frac{1}{2\xi} (\partial_\mu ...
physmath17's user avatar
-5 votes
0 answers
61 views

After reading Noether's theoram and many other examples like objects tendency to follow its geodesics in spacetime makes conserved quantities like momentum etc meaningful so , are energy and momentum ...
Gufran's user avatar
  • 1
4 votes
2 answers
308 views

In an attempt to understand the Reeh-Schlieder theorem, I am currently studying this paper, in which Witten provides a discussion using the formalism of quantum field theory. It is quite ...
flippiefanus's user avatar
  • 17.7k
5 votes
4 answers
814 views

I struggle to understand how theories that are based on renormalization can be considered mathematically rigorous. I understand how renormalization works for non-abelian theories, through loop ...
Timur Obolenskiy's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
57 views

Consider Compton scattering $$p_1 + p_2 \to p_3 + p_4$$ in the laboratory frame. According to Quantum Field Theory and the Standard Model by Schwartz, the relation between the differential cross ...
pll04's user avatar
  • 486
2 votes
1 answer
93 views

Let's say we describe an unstable particle using perturbation theory. Then we have a non-zero decay width, which we say $\Gamma$. Now, if we define mass to be the pole of the propagator, we get $$ \mu^...
Tanmoy Pati's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
98 views

I am working on a problem about Cutkosky’s cutting rule in Matt D. Schwartz’s Quantum Field Theory and the Standard Model. The problem asks us to show that the imaginary part of the amplitude is given ...
Jaeok Yi's user avatar
  • 364
3 votes
1 answer
132 views

It seems this has been discussed here previously (e.g this and this post), but I still feel uneasy. Essentially, I think it all boils down to the popular interpretation of the scalar field operator in ...
Lourenco Entrudo's user avatar
19 votes
9 answers
2k views

After reading a number of posts here in the last few years I'm left wondering why most questions about the interpretation of quantum phenomena relate to quantum mechanics rather than the more modern ...
iSeeker's user avatar
  • 1,390
2 votes
1 answer
109 views

I am trying to practice the techniques given in the book "Feynman Integrals: A Comprehensive for Students and Researchers," by Stefan Weinzierl (preprint). I am getting stuck on one point ...
DiracComb16796's user avatar
0 votes
0 answers
102 views

I'm studying the renormalization of scalar quantum field theories ($\lambda\phi^4$ in particular). I'm considering renormalization by counterterms with the old non-Wilsonian interpretation of ...
HomoVafer's user avatar
  • 864
5 votes
0 answers
156 views

The Higgs potential is written as $V(\phi) = -\mu^2 |\phi|^2 + \lambda^2 |\phi|^4$, where $|\phi|^2 = \phi^\dagger \phi $ and $ \phi $ is a complex scalar doublet. My question is: why do we not ...
Martin's user avatar
  • 51

15 30 50 per page
1
2 3 4 5
968