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(Romans 10:6-8) Is righteousness or faith speaking, or are they the same? And, who/what is the word "it" in verse 8 referring to (righteousness or faith)?

6But the righteousness which is of faith speaketh on this wise, Say not in thine heart, Who shall ascend into heaven? (that is, to bring Christ down from above:) 7 Or, Who shall descend into the deep? (that is, to bring up Christ again from the dead.) 8But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach; 9That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. 10For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.

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    it is a noun phrase "righteousness that is of faith" ie. "faith righteousness", righteousness of faith. Commented yesterday
  • Thank you for that nugget @Michael16! Commented 13 hours ago

6 Answers 6

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Righteousness (of faith) is Speaking

6 But the righteousness of faith speaks as follows: “Do not say in your heart, “Who will go up into heaven?”, that is, to bring Christ down, 7 or “who will go down into the abyss?”, that is, to bring Christ up from the dead.(Romans 10 DLNT)

of faith is genitive modifying the nominative righteousness. Righteousness (of faith) is speaking.

Paul is making an argument based upon the Law (what Moses wrote):

11 "For this commandment that I command you today is not too hard for you, neither is it far off. 12 It is not in heaven, that you should say, 'Who will ascend to heaven for us and bring it to us, that we may hear it and do it?' 13 Neither is it beyond the sea, that you should say, 'Who will go over the sea for us and bring it to us, that we may hear it and do it?'(Deuteronomy 30)

Paul's is arguing from the historical turth. Christ was crucified and raised from the dead. Therefore, righteousness of faith will not say (in the heart), "who will go up heaven..." because the Christ has come down from heaven. Nor will righteousness of faith say, "who will go down into the abyss..." because the Christ has been raised from the dead.

It is Deuteronomy 30:14
Paul asks a rhetorical question: ἀλλὰ τί λέγει ![enter image description here

The answer is Deuteronomy, specifically 30:14:

But the word is very near you. It is in your mouth and in your heart, so that you can do it. (Deuteronomy 30:14)

Paul is referring to a specific verse in the Law. There is no need to add "it" to the question.

Question: But what says, “The word is near you, in your mouth and in your heart”
Answer: Moses, Deuteronomy 30:14

Conclusion
Paul is personifying righteousness of faith which is what identifies those who believe Jesus is the Christ and is the fulfillment of the Law:

4 For Christ has already accomplished the purpose for which the law was given. As a result, all who believe in him are made right with God...

9 If you openly declare that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. 10 For it is by believing in your heart that you are made right with God, and it is by openly declaring your faith that you are saved. (NLT)

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  • Thank you for addressing the personification! And, thank you also for the Deuteronomy reference.(that reference says "the word" rather than "the law"...and the passage in question refers to word of faith and word of God...which includes the law...so could it be also be correct that "it" here refers back to "word of faith"?) Commented yesterday
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    @Don The Greek translation of Deuteronomy 30:14 uses rhema as does Paul throughout the passage. In Romans, faith is written as genitive, righteousness is nominative. That means righteousness is the subject, not faith. It is not righteousness of Law which speaks. It is righteousness of faith. English translations add "it" to the verb λέγει in 10:8. A literal rendering would begin with the rhetorical, but what says, "near to you the rhema is..." "It" is added, but the answer is Moses in Deuteronomy 30:14. Moses does not use "faith" anywhere in the passage in Deuteronomy.... Commented yesterday
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    ... "faith" does not speak in Romans 10. The person who has faith speaks. Paul speaks by faith of the faith 10:14. The believer is made righteous by speaking of their faith, Lord Jesus believing in the heart God raised Him from the dead. The word believing is the verb pisteuō which comes from the noun pistis (faith). The condition of faith produces the action of believing which is evidenced by speaking, "Lord Jesus" while believing in the heart God raised Him from the dead. Commented yesterday
  • The additional information is very pertinent, @RevelationLad! +1 Thank you! Commented 13 hours ago
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This is figurative language. Examples being, “the law says…” when in fact the law doesn’t literally/actually say anything, or “the alarm clock yells my name every morning…” it’s the same idea here, ”the righteousness that comes from faith says…”

Paul is merely pointing out how it works. It’s an interpretation or an application or a reading of righteousness that comes from faith.

Paul is saying that imputed righteousness that is received by faith doesn’t need to climb into heaven to be attained by attaining Christ, nor does it need to raise Christ from the dead as though His work were incomplete, rather believers have Christ in them and as such they have His righteousness too. It does not need to be earned. It’s received by faith.

Believing in Christ one attains righteousness fully and wholly. If you believe the good news and accept it, it is sufficient to attain righteousness. A vastly different paradigm than that offered under the Mosaic Law. And very difficult to receive as veritable except by faith

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  • Hello! Your answer caused me to consider a new question about "saith" (literal or figurative) regarding Scripture "speaking". Would appreciate if you have an opportunity to answer that one also. Kind regards. Commented yesterday
  • hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/114371/… Commented yesterday
  • Much appreciated @NihilSineDeo! +1 Commented 13 hours ago
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This is uncomplicated, both grammatically and contextually. Let me go back to Rom 10:3 to get the context and Rom 10:6 makes little sense on its own.

Rom 10:3 & 4 establishes a contrast between the legalistic Jews, who sought to establish their own righteousness by keeping the law, vs, those who submit to God's righteousness that comes by faith to all who trust/believe.

Rom 10:5 & 6 continue this same contrast as follows:

  • righteousness that comes by the law Moses writes: “The man who does these things will live by them.”
  • the righteousness that come from faith says: “Do not say in your heart, ‘Who will ascend into heaven?’ ...

This is supported by the grammar - it is the righteousness (ie, by extension, those seeking the righteousness) speaking.

Now, the thrust of Paul's statement about NOT saying that Christ ascended and descended is this: (again by contrast)

  • the righteousness that seeks to be established by law is from the person and denies Christ's saving sacrifice, His death and burial and His resurrection and ascent into heaven. That is "who needs anyone to ascend and descend because we have established our own righteousness."
  • by contrast, those who trust and believe in Christ for their credited righteousness by faith do NOT say such things.

Thus, Paul teaches what he concludes in V8-10 -

But what does it say? “The word is near you; it is in your mouth and in your heart,” that is, the word of faith we are proclaiming: that if you confess with your mouth, “Jesus is Lord,” and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved. For with your heart you believe and are justified, and with your mouth you confess and are saved.

That, is true righteousness by faith!

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  • Kindly reconsider once again whether the message should or should not be divided? To me, the message seems to begin in vs 6 and ends in vs 10? Commented 2 days ago
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    @Don - Paul mounts an argument in Rom 10:1-10 that contrasts legalism (= righteousness by works) with righteousness by faith. He then spends the rest of the chapter providing Scriptural evidence for his conclusion in V8-10. Commented 2 days ago
  • Respectfully, who/what is the word "it" referring to in verse 8 (righteousness or faith)? Commented 2 days ago
  • @Don - "it" does not exist in the Greek - the text says that the word is in your mouth and in your heart, ie, the word of God, namely the revelation of the gospel of grace and via the NT revelation of such. That is how it used throughout the NT. Commented 2 days ago
  • That's helpful! (So, who/what is speaking that caused the translation to say "it" in English? Earlier, verse 6 says, "6But the righteousness which is of faith speaketh on this wise.") Commented 2 days ago
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There is faith that repudiates the righteousness of God. For example, many demonic entities believe that God exists (for they were cast out of his presence); they believe that the Son of God was born of woman, was crucified, and rose again, and is now in heaven. They believe that Christ is going to suddenly usher in the Day of Resurrection and Judgment and that he will cast them into the sulphuric, burning lake forever. Those ones actually have much stronger belief in all that than some professed Christians.

But is such belief faith? James wrote about faith requiring actions, and how the devils also believe there is one God, yet tremble (James 2:18-19). Without seeing their future estate, they believe it will happen, hence their trembling. They may know that God is righteous but rage against the righteousness of God. They do not have the righteousness of faith, and never will.

This extreme example helps lead into the faith of God's people, Israel, addressed in Romans chapter 10. Israel did not have demonic belief that raged against God's righteousness, yet Paul exposed their belief as not in accord with knowledge:

"For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves to the righteousness of God. For Christ [is] the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth." Romans 10:2-4 A.V.

This demonstrates that it is possible to have faith in God, yet that faith not being sufficient for them to submit to the righteousness of God. The demons won't submit, nor will those who put their own supposed righteousness either above, or on a par with God's righteousness.

Verse 6 now leads into the question asked: Who/what is the word "it" referring to in verse 8 (righteousness or faith)?

"But the righteousness which is of faith speaketh on this wise, Say not in thine heart... But what saith it?... that is, the word of faith, which we preach." Romans 10:6-8 AV, extracts for emphasis

"It" is the preached gospel of the righteousness of God, believed not just to utter words of profession, but which belief is in the hearts of those moved to confess Jesus Christ. As verse 10 states:

"For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation." Romans 10:10 A.V.

The two are inseparable. The word of faith, preached, believed in both heart and mind, enacted in living demonstration of the righteousness of God, in Christ.

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  • Thank you @Anne for your many insights on the faith of Christ. +1 Commented 13 hours ago
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Answer

Students of literature will know that it is an artistic way of saying that the Scripture (in fact God through Scripture) speaks about the righteousness of faith.

It is one of the literary devices used by the writers.

“It” is the Scripture.

Explanation

The context is given by Paul in Romans 9:31-32.

“but Israel following after a Law of righteousness did not arrive at a Law of righteousness? Why? Because it was not of faith, but as of works of Law. For they stumbled at the Stone-of-stumbling”.

Israel (Jew first and then the Greeks/Gentiles) was supposed to reach at the law (standard) of righteousness.

It was to be done through “faith” in the sacrifice of Jesus Christ.

But the Jews tried to reach it through the “works of law” (animal sacrifices).

Thus we learn that:

  • The Law of righteousness = the Goal;

  • Faith = the right Means;

  • Works of Law = the wrong Means.

The best example one can cite to explain the controversy of “law vs. faith” is Apostle Paul himself.

Before conversion, he was far from the Law of righteousness:

“the one who before was a blasphemer, and a persecutor, and insolent” (1 Tim 1:13).

But as a Jew he was perfect in his Jewish life following the works of Law:

“If any other thinks that he has reason to trust in the flesh, I more. I was circumcised the eighth day, of the stock of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of the Hebrews. As regards the Law, I was a Pharisee; concerning zeal, persecuting the church; regarding the righteousness in the Law, blameless” (Phlp 3:4-6).

Paul before his conversion, as a “blasphemer”, “persecutor” and “insolent” cannot be talking about the spiritual Law. He is talking about the Works of Law because the original Law doesn’t talk anything about Pharisee.

Paul is talking about a different law here, the ritual law with traditions added by the fathers:

“I am truly a man, a Jew born in Tarsus in Cilicia, yet brought up in this city at the feet of Gamaliel, taught according to the exactness of the Law of the fathers, being a zealous one of God, as you all are today. I persecuted this Way as far as death, binding and delivering both men and women into prisons” (Acts 22:3-4).

At that stage Paul could never reach the Law of righteousness even if he fervently tried. Why?

“And so people become enemies of God when they are controlled by their human nature; for they do not obey God's law, and in fact they cannot obey it” (Rom 8:7).

Yet, one day, because of God’s grace, he received mercy. He was made righteous by God.

“but I received mercy, because being ignorant I did it in unbelief” (1 Tim 1:13).

Paul didn’t deserve this because he was a blasphemer, persecutor and insolent. Yet God showed mercy through His grace and Paul was given faith in a powerful way on the road to Damascus.

“But the grace of our Lord abounded exceedingly with faith and love in Christ Jesus. Faithful is the Word and worthy of all acceptance, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners, of whom I am chief. But for this reason I received mercy, that in me first Jesus Christ might show forth all long-suffering, for an example to those being about to believe on Him to everlasting life” (1 Tim 1:14-16).

Conclusion

Paul, earlier, as a Pharisaic Jew, thought that the traditions of his fathers with strict observances of animal sacrifices absolved him of his sins.

But he learned through faith that only Jesus’ unique sacrifice as the Lamb of God absolved his sins. Thus he was “made righteous” by God. Thereafter he did “good works” obeying God’s spiritual laws.

This is the righteousness which is of faith.

“Even as also David says of the blessedness of the man to whom God counts righteousness apart from works: "Blessed are those whose lawlessnesses are forgiven, and whose sins are covered” (Rom 4:6-7).

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    Very well written, @NephreshRoi. Commented 15 hours ago
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[To the best of my understanding, and with the help of the wise counsel here at BH (regarding grammar and additional textual information, although each contributor has independently arrived at a different interpretation) I am answering this question outside of the normal bias because otherwise a centuries-old interpretive focus on faith continues unchallenged instead of a focus on Christ (who is Faith, the only Evidence of things not seen, the only Substance of things hoped for).]

ANSWER

This is not figurative language in Romans 10:6-8. It is, instead, spiritually literal language. How so? Simply put, Paul's messages always point to Christ.

When Paul speaks of love, hope, justification, salvation, righteousness, faith, etc --he is pointing to Christ.

Paul clearly points to Christ again here in this message (through inspiration), clarifying OT truth by incorporating NT truth to enlarge the previous understanding of his audience.

There is nothing here that uses figurative methods from literature, but it is all spiritually literal. This is a main salvific message from God Himself! Paul is revealing a message from Christ, the Righteousness which is of Faith, who is actually the One speaking through Paul.

The Lord our Righteousness is speaking through this NT passage and also through the quoted OT passage. In addition (unfortunately, due to the translators' systemic theology) He is referred to as "it".

Thus, I submit for everyone's further consideration and remembrance the following:

...and this is his name whereby he shall be called, THE LORD OUR RIGHTEOUSNESS. (Jer 23:6b)

Jesus Christ is the only "righteousness which is of faith". And, He speaketh still.

6 But the righteousness which is of faith (the Lord our Righteousness) speaketh on this wise

8 But what saith it (He)?

[Italics mine]

Here is the message from the Lord our Righteousness, the same One who is the Righteousness which is of Faith:

Say not in thine heart, Who shall ascend into heaven? (that is, to bring Christ down from above:) Or, Who shall descend into the deep? (that is, to bring up Christ again from the dead.) The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach; That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.

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  • Christ is faith? How so? Is refraining from eating meat pointing to Christ? Is choosing celibacy pointing to a Christ? Is submitting to governing authorities pointing to Christ? Is speaking about a church member sleeping with his mother pointing to Christ? I think you have made a huge assumption and misapplication. Christ is faith? That I would love more proof of because nothing indicates faith being Christ. So you need Christ to receive Christ? See the absurdity Inrun into when conflating faith with Christ? Commented 12 hours ago
  • Peace @NihilSineDeo! Just as God is love, we could dissect that in a similar fashion, yes? However, for me this is a several year study, due to seeing the religion of faith causing the true difficulty. I would like to talk further but can not do chat. Here, in comments, we will run into straining the moderators' patience. Thus, we are left to "questions and answers from a hermeneutical perspective" (which we would really both desire anyway!) I will try to find another link from the past month here on BH. Kind regards. Commented 12 hours ago
  • Here is my oldest question. @NihilSineDeo hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/113653/… Commented 11 hours ago
  • The problem @Don with your claim, that Christ is Faith, is that it doesn’t work. No where does regeneration proceed faith in the Bible. And that’s basically what you are saying, you need Christ in order to get Christ. And that’s basically impossible and illogical. If you already have Christ, you don’t need to attain Christ, and if you don’t have Christ, then you’ll never have Christ. But if faith is exactly what it has always been, a trust, a confidence, a fidelity and it is not Christ, all the inconsistencies and problems go away. My suggestion is check why you have accepted this idea Commented 10 hours ago
  • It seems to be the difference between monergism and synergism @NihilSineDeo. I believe the former better reflects the gospel, whereas the latter shares similarities with all "religions". My study has been mainly Scripture itself. Commented 10 hours ago

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