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My notes state that the given the vorticity equation:
$$\frac{\partial \boldsymbol \omega}{\partial t} + (\mathbf{v} \cdot \nabla)\boldsymbol\omega = (\boldsymbol\omega \cdot \nabla)\mathbf{v} + \nu \nabla^2 \boldsymbol\omega $$
If $\nu =0$ and $\boldsymbol\omega(\mathbf{x}, t=0) = 0$, then $\boldsymbol\omega(\mathbf{x}, t) = 0$.

I don't immediately see why this must hold. For example, $\boldsymbol\omega(\mathbf{x}, t) = t^2 \hat{z}$ satisfies the initial condition, yet clearly isn't identically zero.(Not saying it's a solution of course, just as an example of a function that fits the initial condition and isn't identically 0) Is there a uniqueness theorem for this PDE that guarantees the solution is zero if it starts at zero? Or is something else enforcing this?

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    $\begingroup$ Doesnt the vorticity equation read 1 + 0 = 0 + 0? Also shouldn't $\omega$ be a vector? Or is it a 2d system? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 1 at 9:16
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    $\begingroup$ @AccidentalTaylorExpansion Well I didn't really consider the equation itself, just the condition, I'll edit it to t^2 so it satisfies both, and yes w is a vector, can't make it bold for some reason. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 1 at 9:25
  • $\begingroup$ here some discussion about equation of vorticity for invisicid flows. basics2022.github.io/bbooks-fluid-mechanics/polimi/… (Italian only so far, please use automatic translation in your browser). You could get some insight Helmholtz theorems about vorticity tubes,... To cut a long story short, vorticity in inviscid flows forms either closed vorticity tubes, or is generated at solid boundaries. I don't have time to provide a detailed answer now. I'll come back later $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 1 at 11:32
  • $\begingroup$ @basics This seems very close to what I'm looking for, but I'm not sure about the notation, what is $x_{0 l}$ ? There also seems to be some assumption that derivative w.r.t $x_{0 l}$ is commutative with D/Dt . $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 1 at 12:10
  • $\begingroup$ x0 is material coordinates (like labels of material points, points moving with the continuum). As I told you before, I'll come back later with a hopefully complete answer. Just let me know if you're interested in some aeronautical application of this principle, so that I can tune my answer and maybe add a paragraph about it. The equation you wrote is ok for incompressible fluids (or at most barotropic): are you mainly interested in this kind of fluids/flows? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 1 at 12:22

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The equation with $\nu=0$ can be written $$\partial_t \omega(t,x) = L_x\omega(t,x)\tag{0}$$ where $L_x$ is a first order differential operator in the variable $x$.

Heuristically, if $v$ in $L_x$ does not depend on $t$, the formal solution is $$\omega(t,x) =e^{tL_x}\omega(0,x). \tag{1}\:.$$

This solution is the correct and unique one provided one fixes a suitable space of solutions where to interpret the problem.

(For instance assuming that the solution is jointly smooth in both variables and analytic in $t$ for every given $x$, and that $v$ is smooth in $x$, (0) yields $$\frac{\partial^n \omega}{\partial t^n}= L_x^n \omega(t,x).$$ As a consequence of $t$-analyticity $$\omega(t,x)= \sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \frac{t^n}{n!}\frac{\partial^n \omega}{\partial t^n}|_{t=0}= \sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \frac{t^n}{n!} L_x^n\omega(0,x) =: e^{tL_x}\omega(0,x)\:. $$ However analyticity is an incredibly strong requirement and the same result can be found in some functional spaces using the semi-group theory.)

If the solution is (1), it is obvious true that $\omega(0,x)=0$ everywhere in $x$ then the solution is the trivial one.

If $v$ depends on time, a formal solution can be given in terms of $T$ ordered exponential. But here details on domains are crucial: $$\omega(t,x) = T[e^{\int_0^{t}L_{s,x} ds}]\omega(0,x).$$ At least formally we obtain the same result as before.

The fact that $\omega = \nabla \wedge v$ is not a problem because this identity can be imposed at the end of computations.

I observe that if the fluid is incompressible ($\nabla \cdot v =0$) and also using $\omega= \nabla \wedge v$ so that $\nabla \cdot \omega =0$, the form of the operator $L_{t,x}$ simplifies considerably: $$L_{t,x} \omega = \omega \cdot \nabla_x v(t,x) -v(t,x) \cdot \nabla \omega = \nabla \wedge (v(t,x)\wedge \omega).$$

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    $\begingroup$ Doesn't assuming v is time-independent make the problem trivial? Since vorticity is curl(v), it would also be time-independent. The more interesting case is when v = v(t). $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 1 at 12:02
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    $\begingroup$ Using a T ordered exponential we obtain the same result as before, but here delicate details on domains matter…I updated my answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 1 at 13:43

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