The question is inspired in part by Sartre's writing in "Being and Nothingness" [Hazel E. Barnes's 1957 translation, my highlights], specifically
I am condemned to exist forever beyond my essence, beyond the causes and motives of my act. I am condemned to be free. This means that no limits to my freedom can be found except freedom itself, or, if you prefer, that we are not free to cease being free
and, some pages later
If to be free meant to be its own foundation, it would be necessary that freedom should decide the existence of its being. And this necessity can be understood in two ways. First, it would be necessary that freedom should decide its being-free; that is, not only that it should be a choice of an end, but that it should be a choice of itself as freedom. This would suppose therefore that the possibility of being-free and the possibility of not-being-free exist equally before the free choice of either one of them — i.e., before the free choice of freedom. [...] In fact we are a freedom which chooses, but we do not choose to be free. We are condemned to freedom, as we said earlier, thrown into freedom or, as Heidegger says, "abandoned".
Note he does not use the term "free will", but it seems not hard to interpret "free" and "freedom" in a adequate, compatible manner. There's also the related sub-question of whether a "No" answer (either in the manner of Sartre, or in another one) would mean that (naïve notions of¹) "free will" is paradoxical/incoherent/self-refuting
¹ I'm keeping it deliberately a bit vague