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I have attempted to prove that the sum of infinitely many quanities can still equal a finite quantity without using calculus, measure theory, or any other modern mathematical tool such as set theory.

My goal was to solely use Euclidean geometry.

I hope that this proof will be reviewed by other peers on this site.

Thank you. Page 1 of proof Page 2 of proof Page 3 of proof Page 4 of proof Page 5 of proof

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    $\begingroup$ This forum is not meant for peer-reviewing. $\endgroup$ Commented 18 hours ago
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    $\begingroup$ after examining your work i came to conclusion u need to improve your handwriting $\endgroup$ Commented 18 hours ago
  • $\begingroup$ i think it's fine but maybe you should have chosen $X_2$ betwen $A$ and $X_1$ or $B$ and $X_1$ then induction would easily complete the proof $\endgroup$ Commented 18 hours ago
  • $\begingroup$ "This forum is not meant for peer-reviewing". That goes double for peer-reviewing screenshots. You should type in the proof using Mathjax, which is easier for us (and for actual peer reviewers) to access and even search. $\endgroup$ Commented 12 hours ago

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