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1$\begingroup$ When you say "it is either already true that the particle will decay or already false" what do you mean by that? Isn't the point of quantum mechanics that this fact is completely indeterminate before measuing the particle? How can it be "already" false or true, if the state of the particle is fundamentally not determined? $\endgroup$Davyz2– Davyz22025-12-31 09:58:24 +00:00Commented 22 hours ago
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$\begingroup$ @Davyz2: My coffee cup is either red or blue? Which is it? I claim that a) there is a right and a wrong answer to this question, b) you have no way of knowing which answer is right and which answer is wrong, and c) that these facts do not contradict each other. I don't think this bears further discussion. $\endgroup$WillO– WillO2025-12-31 10:03:20 +00:00Commented 22 hours ago
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$\begingroup$ If the coffee cup is truly either red or blue, but you have no way of knowing this state, wouldn't this be an explanation in terms of hidden variables of the cup? If you say this, it means that there is an hidden variable (albeit completely unknowable) which determines the future decay of the particle isn's it? But according to quantum mechanics, isn't let's say the spin of the particle fundamentally not defined until the future measurement occurs? $\endgroup$Davyz2– Davyz22025-12-31 10:09:15 +00:00Commented 22 hours ago
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$\begingroup$ The problem here would be that the future measurement already occurred in another inertial frame, so how can the first observer say that the spin of the particle is "not defined"? Something is either defined, or not defined after all, and if the laws of physics are invariant they both have to agree on one of these options $\endgroup$Davyz2– Davyz22025-12-31 10:15:23 +00:00Commented 22 hours ago
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$\begingroup$ A number of comments deleted. Knock it off, y'all. $\endgroup$rob– rob ♦2025-12-31 18:17:22 +00:00Commented 14 hours ago
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