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Aug 7, 2014 at 16:29 vote accept jimmyorpheus
Aug 7, 2014 at 8:25 comment added Mikhail Katz @Hurkyl, thanks for a nice post. You should add that the hyperrationals actually provide an answer to the OP's question: since they surject to the reals, the cardinality of the reals is dominated by that of the hyperrationals. This was I think the main thrust of his question (analogy with proof of countability of the rationals) so he might be interested in this.
Aug 6, 2014 at 23:50 comment added Asaf Karagila I find the first example to be lacking. While it's of course true, perhaps it's good to remember from time to time that for most people "numbers come from somewhere" (usually $\Bbb c$ or $\Bbb R$) and to say that $x$ is larger than all the real numbers raises the question "Where did it come from, and how come we didn't know about it before?".
Aug 6, 2014 at 23:50 comment added Thomas Andrews Technically "transfinite" does not mean "non-finite." Transfinite numbers generally refer to cardinal and ordinal numbers only. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transfinite_number
Aug 6, 2014 at 23:48 history answered user14972 CC BY-SA 3.0