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yesterday comment added Sine of the Time @Harold note that you can accept the answer by clicking the check mark next to it
yesterday history edited Rócherz CC BY-SA 4.0
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2 days ago comment added Claude Leibovici @Harold Look at math.stackexchange.com/questions/566507/…
2 days ago comment added Harold Thanks but I still do not understand how you change the original equation to $x(y)$-land, especially for $x''(y)$ part. I know how to change $\frac {\text{d}y}{\text{d}x}$ to $\frac {\text{d}x}{\text{d}y}$ by imagining $\text{d}x$ and $\text{d}y$ as separate parts, but not when larger order of derivatives appear. Could you explain that for me?
2 days ago history edited Claude Leibovici CC BY-SA 4.0
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2 days ago history answered Claude Leibovici CC BY-SA 4.0