Timeline for answer to Have there been any countries that voted themselves out of existence? by Radovan Garabík
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 12:37 | comment | added | LаngLаngС | @PieterGeerkens That makes two of us suggesting these be added soon ;) | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 12:36 | comment | added | Pieter Geerkens | @LangLangC: Fine - but this post remains a very weak answer because no circumstantial details are provided. | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 12:30 | comment | added | LаngLаngС | @PieterGeerkens These are of course questions of definition. Since most conquerors declare themselves as 'liberators', whether true or not, and with people indeed in favour and against it: I'd argue a solution would be to let all examples stand, but noting more of the circumstances in the answer. All examples noted in this Q&A are different in their details. The Krim2Russia thing would be prime candidate to let readers cast their own verdict… Lest it comes down to true scotsmanship of of 'voting', 'free', 'democracy', 'true will of the people'… | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 11:55 | comment | added | Pieter Geerkens | I would argue that any time the vote takes place after the arrival of nominally conquering troops, as in the Baltic States in 1939 and in Lubeck in the 1860's, any subsequent vote is a formality. the surrender of sovereignty has already been forced. | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 11:52 | history | answered | Radovan Garabík | CC BY-SA 4.0 |