Timeline for answer to Have there been any countries that voted themselves out of existence? by Pieter Geerkens
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
Post Revisions
30 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jun 17, 2020 at 9:02 | history | edited | CommunityBot |
Commonmark migration
|
|
| Sep 11, 2019 at 13:38 | comment | added | Pieter Geerkens | @IMSoP: I will not debate this with you further in a comment chain (or a chat). You have clearly not recently read, in their entirety, either the Act of Abjuration or the Declaration of Independence. If you wish to ask a question on this site about the appropriateness of my definition, be my guest, I might even choose to answer. | |
| Sep 11, 2019 at 13:19 | comment | added | Pieter Geerkens | @IMSoP: The question explicitly inquires about circumstances where a "vote" has been made. That in and of itself invokes the natural sovereignty of those possessing eligibility to vote. There can be no other interpretation. Either those voting are recognized as having authority to exercise that sovereignty - or they are not so recognized. The citizenry in question is clearly, by context, referring to those with eligibility to participate. I recommend you read the full Act of Abjuration again, and possibly the very similar U.S. Declaration of Independence. | |
| Sep 11, 2019 at 11:22 | vote | accept | Allure | ||
| Sep 10, 2019 at 18:06 | comment | added | Pieter Geerkens | @Sumyrda: Agreed. That was always the point of the EU, and the numbers of those who are starting to regret that is growing across the whole continent. The Euro was always a terrible idea - read Jane Jacobs. | |
| Sep 10, 2019 at 18:04 | comment | added | Sumyrda - remember Monica | With that definition of sovereignty, you could add all EU members to your list of examples, because (as the Brexit problems illustrate) the EU members don't have full control over their trade deals. | |
| Sep 10, 2019 at 16:04 | history | edited | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 2 characters in body
|
| Sep 10, 2019 at 0:55 | history | edited | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 63 characters in body
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 17:00 | history | edited | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 1619 characters in body
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 15:14 | history | edited | LаngLаngС | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
minor follow up correction
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 12:56 | comment | added | LаngLаngС | That's why I set them in italics. I thought it would be one possible cause of the confusion as the duchy's territories were conquered & shifted around at the time Prussia went conquering and annexing in the general area. (Prussia invading Holstein on June 9 before meeting the Austrians at Königgrätz in 66, with Oldenburg ('owners' of Duchy Lübeck in Holstein) & City of Lübeck both being Prussian allies, Frankfurt on the loosing side) | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 12:44 | comment | added | Pieter Geerkens | @LangLangC: Don't conflate the Prince-Bishopric of Lubeck with the Hanseatic Free City of Lubeck. These were two distinct "principalities" of the HRE. | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 12:38 | history | edited | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
deleted 86 characters in body
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 12:29 | history | edited | Evargalo | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
small mistake
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 12:23 | comment | added | LаngLаngС | Frankfurt was punished by annexation. During 2nd Schleswig war Prussian troops were 'around', but in 1866 'nothing happened' and in 1867 the Duchy of Lübeck was gaining Territory from Prussia The free city even got concession from Prussia for joining (DOI 10.1007/978-3-540-48707-4). I think Lübeck qualifies as well. | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 12:13 | comment | added | Pieter Geerkens | @LangLangC: I am sure I read last night that Prussian troops occupied Lubeck prior to the conclusion of talks in regards joining the North German Confederation. However I can't find it now, so I may have misremembered. | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 11:53 | comment | added | LаngLаngС | Conquered by whom? Don't you conflate Lübeck with Frankfurt? | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 11:10 | comment | added | Pieter Geerkens | @Bregalad: My research shows that Lubeck was conquered, unlike Hamburg and Bremen which were merely coerced into the North German Confederation. Thus Lubeck fails to meet the terms of OP's question of "voting itself out of existence. A fine line perhaps, but there were distinct differences in the circumstances. | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 8:32 | comment | added | Bregalad | Lübeck was also a hanseatic free city until hitler removed it in the 1937 | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 6:39 | comment | added | LаngLаngС | Hanseatic cities are really an excellent example. However, I found the 1933 part difficult to parse at first (from HRR to North German Federation what is 'fully sovereign, anyway) And I guess a comparison to the fate of other free cities and Saarstaat might fit in as well? | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 4:17 | history | edited | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 99 characters in body
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 3:41 | history | edited | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 1853 characters in body
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 3:29 | history | edited | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 1853 characters in body
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 3:09 | history | edited | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 906 characters in body
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 2:33 | history | edited | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 846 characters in body
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 2:28 | history | edited | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 846 characters in body
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 2:13 | history | edited | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 20 characters in body
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 2:06 | history | edited | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 10 characters in body
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 1:59 | history | edited | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 10 characters in body
|
| Sep 9, 2019 at 1:52 | history | answered | Pieter Geerkens | CC BY-SA 4.0 |