Timeline for answer to Have there been any countries that voted themselves out of existence? by Chris Stratton
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Sep 9, 2019 at 20:12 | comment | added | sgf | @LangLangC I find it hard to imagine that the USA would have acted that way in Germany, even had the Germans decided that communism was the way forward. But a better comparison to what happened in Hungary and Czechoslovakia is maybe West Germany leaving the Nato, introducing an inheritance tax and critizising Roosevelt. | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 17:42 | comment | added | user15620 | Texas fits, but the "California Republic" was never more than aspirational, and didn't have the formal structure to take votes, much less actually hold one on the subject. | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 16:17 | comment | added | cbeleites | German situation was peculiar: the allied forces "bridged" the 6 months between reunification and March 15, 1990 by a declaration that practically made Germany souvereign under the condition of reunification (reunification was fixed when that declaration was signed, though). One may also argue that the reunification was souvereign in the sense that if the allies had executed their veto rights, there wouldn't have been a reunification: i.e. the reunification was not quite what the 4 allies wished, in particularly not UK and France after the Soviet Union did not oppose reunification any more. | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 11:38 | comment | added | LаngLаngС | @sgf Well, Germany remained under nominal military occupation until 15 March 1991…. Both weren't in 1989/90. The other things rel USA are a distraction on the levels of sovereignty on the one hand, and on the other you ask the hypothetical of 'what cold war Truman doctrine fighters would have done with Gladio in place and tanks on the ground if the West-Germans had decided communism would be the way forward'? Surely the US would have acted not like the SU in Budapest, but at least like US did in Iran, Guatemala, Grenada, Chile…? | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 10:58 | comment | added | sgf | @LangLangC You're fighting windmills here. It's fine to be sceptical or dismissive of West Germany's sovereignty, as you are, but however you want to view that question, East Germany wasn't sovereign, not even by comparison to West Germany, or are you suggesting that the USA would have replicated the events of 1956 in Hungary and 1968 in Czechoslovakia in West Germany? | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 6:24 | comment | added | LаngLаngС | Funny thing is you mean 'fully western-democratic capitalist government for GDR'? As both German states weren't 'fully sovereign' – until 1990 the allied control commission was still in session? | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 2:07 | comment | added | Lars Bosteen | Hi Chris Stratton and welcome to History SE. This looks like a good answer; adding a few links / sources would improve it and make it more likely people will upvote. | |
| Sep 9, 2019 at 1:58 | history | edited | Chris Stratton | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Sep 9, 2019 at 1:53 | history | edited | Chris Stratton | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Sep 9, 2019 at 1:50 | review | First posts | |||
| Sep 9, 2019 at 2:07 | |||||
| Sep 9, 2019 at 1:47 | history | answered | Chris Stratton | CC BY-SA 4.0 |