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Biblical Hermeneutics

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    The translation wrongly says the law was never able to give life, bec no able law was ever given. The point of the context is that the law has expired only now after the coming of the seed. To say that the law was useless is to call God satan. It was the guardian UNTIL Christ came, NOW faith/promise came we are NO LONGER under the law. I will post my detailed ans soon to explain how the whole verse is the biggest mistranslation. You can post a counter answer to debate, but it requires Greek. See my ans on Could the law give life hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/60681/16757 Commented Feb 19, 2022 at 16:52
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    @Michael16 By the law is the knowledge of sin. It was added because of transgressions. Of itself, it justifies nobody. Commented Feb 19, 2022 at 16:55
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    I have asked about this to many who claim to know Greek and all have remained silent, which proves that this is the most biased translation at least about the anti-law faith alone theology of sin, as started by Augustin/Luther etc. If the given law could (still) give life then righteousness comes through it. Same as 2:21. The idea of depravity is also making God a liar for commanding and then punishing man. @NigelJ if justified nobody then all saints went to hell and God turns out to be a liar. See Rom 10:4-6 the one who does them shall live by them. But faith righteousness is different. Commented Feb 19, 2022 at 16:59
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    @Michael16 The law justified nobody because all the saints pleased God due to their faith. Faith that pleases God is utterly devoid of any righteousness we suppose we might have, or have earned. It's utterly all about the righteousness of God's free pardon to those who exercise that faith. Commented Feb 19, 2022 at 17:06
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    @Michael16 Abraham believed God and there was accounted to him unto righteousness. But the law is not of faith : he that doeth shall be justified. But none does. All fail. Commented Feb 19, 2022 at 17:07