Timeline for answer to What does Romans 10 have to do with Deuteronomy 30? by Cillendor
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Mar 24, 2017 at 4:27 | comment | added | James Shewey | And when you have a moment, please take a moment to take the site tour and review some of our guidelines for participants.. | |
| S Mar 9, 2017 at 16:43 | review | Late answers | |||
| Mar 24, 2017 at 4:27 | |||||
| S Mar 9, 2017 at 16:43 | review | First posts | |||
| Mar 11, 2017 at 21:33 | |||||
| Mar 9, 2017 at 15:08 | comment | added | Susan | Thank you for your thoughts, but Χριστὸν καταγαγεῖν unambiguously has "Christ" as the object (i.e., in modern English, "to bring Christ down"). Young's is apparently counting on your ability to recognize archaic or otherwise non-normative English word order in order to preserve the Greek word order. The latter, however, is not indicative of any particular syntactical relationship; this is instead marked by noun case (here, accusative). | |
| Mar 9, 2017 at 15:02 | history | answered | Cillendor | CC BY-SA 3.0 |