Timeline for answer to Is it appropriate to translate Galatians 3:21 as "If a law had been given"? by Susan
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| Sep 22, 2016 at 2:54 | comment | added | Susan |
In addition to adding....: this can be "got" with reference to the reorganized Greek above. | The ho clause here (I assume you refer to #2) is a relative clause acting as a specifier and so indicating "membership in a class of which there are other members" (Wallace, p. 244), which is the essence of an indefinite noun. | if the given law... is the Greek of the final text box above | (3) nope, not the point, but the statement requires assumption of a law not given. For further discussion, please head to Biblical Hermeneutics Chat.
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| Sep 21, 2016 at 17:58 | comment | added | Michael16 | RE:(3) the point is not that the law in question has not been given; but that the law in question could not work. | |
| Sep 21, 2016 at 17:42 | comment | added | Michael16 | I didn't get your last point [if addition to adding...]. Also, does the (hoheto) translated as "which/ that" actually force the indefinite article? that word also has a wide range of translations including "the" ! But again the "if a law" sentence should end with "righteousness would come by that law" instead of "the law" as all translations use. Why are they using "the law" in the end? and how about translating it if the given law could give life then [it] could be by the law? | |
| Sep 16, 2016 at 22:16 | history | edited | Susan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Sep 16, 2016 at 21:56 | history | edited | Susan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Sep 16, 2016 at 21:30 | history | answered | Susan | CC BY-SA 3.0 |