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Biblical Hermeneutics

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    ...it is a interpretive bias that the author is talking about any/all law instead of "the/this law" the law of Moses specifically... - no, it isn't. It is really the plain meaning of the Greek text. The upvoted answer below gives a clear and patient explanation of why this is so. (Cf. Burton, Galatians, pp. 193-4, starting at the bottom of p. 193.) Commented Nov 18, 2016 at 11:28
  • @Dɑvïd the established fact is not "so such law has been given" rather, "the law cannot give life". He does not write: "If a law had been given that could give life, we would definitely know of it". But "if the law could give life, it would give life or righteousness would be by it". Commented Nov 19, 2016 at 6:16
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    The sense is this: If a law unto life had been given then righteousness would come by that law. The whole section is demonstrating how and why righteousness is by faith apart from law and that no such law unto life was given. Commented Aug 30, 2021 at 12:53