In their discussion of what they mention that as a pronoun it’s non-personal and as a determinative it’s “neutral with respect to the personal vs non-personal distinction.” I’d say that here too this acts the same
No it does not. Compare:
- This guy is buying groceriesappears to be in charge.
- This isappears to be the guy buying groceriesin charge.
- What guy is buying groceriesappears to be in charge?
- * What is buying groceriesappears to be the guy in charge?
(1) and (2) are both correct. This is usually non-personal when used without a following noun, since we would typically use he, she, or they instead. But it can be used to refer to a person, as (2) shows.
On the other hand, while (3) is correct, (4) is not. When what is used on its own, it is always non-personal, making (4) incorrect (with the relevant interpretation). So (4) can't be seen as a fused determiner-head, since what has a different meaning here than it does as a determiner.
Edit: There is a further complication here, as Huddleston & Pullum note on p. 904. What can occur as a predicative complement with the ascriptive be, as in Araucaria's "If Mitch is the ringleader, what is Alphabet?" example. Here the expected answer is not a referential noun phrase denoting a person, so this does not violate the general rule.